sniffnoy: (Kirby)
So, here's something that had bugged me for a long time. Jacobsthal multiplication is associative, but the proof of this is unsatisfying. Normally the way you prove an operation is associative is that you show that a multiary version of it makes sense; you don't just literally show that a(bc)=(ab)c, you show that abc makes sense on its own as a ternary thing (or with even more operands) and that a(bc) and (ab)c are both equal to this.

But for Jacobsthal multiplication, the only proof I knew of its associativity was to show that a×(b×c) was equal to (a×b)×c; I wasn't able to find an interpretation of a×b×c on its own.

Now, some years ago, Paolo Lipparini found an order-theoretic interpretation of the Jacobsthal product, but it wasn't one that led to an immediate proof of associativity. But based on an observation of Isa Vialard, I think I finally have one! It's a little awkward, but of course it is; it's Jacobsthal multiplication, after all.

Let's say A and B are WPOs, and let's consider the lexicographic product A·B (note: B here is the coordinate that's compared first). Then o(A)o(B) ≤ o(A·B) ≤ o(A)×o(B).

But, actually, we can say more. Suppose B has k maximal elements, so that o(B) has finite part greater than or equal to k. Then, Vialard noted, we have o(A·B) = o(A)·(o(B)-k) + o(B)×k.

In particular, if o(B) has finite part equal to its number of maximal elements, then o(A·B)=o(A)×o(B). (In fact, as long as A has multiple distinct powers of ω in its Cantor normal form, the converse also holds.)

Btw, the finite part of o(B) is equal to the number of elements of B that have only finitely many elements above them. We could call such elements "almost maximal". So B satisfies this condition iff every almost maximal element is maximal.

Anyway, let's call a WPO that satisfies this condition "flat-topped". Note that flat-topped WPOs are closed under disjoint union, under Cartesian product, and, yes, under lexicographic product! So we can interpret α×β as the type of A·B for any flat-topped A,B with o(A)=α and o(B)=β; and we can do similarly with α×β×γ, etc. So this does it! We've interpreted multiary × and proved associativity nicely. Hooray!

EDIT 5/5: Actually, on writing to Lipparini about this, he pointed out to me that another observation of Vialard provides an even easier answer, namely, without needing the flat-topped condition, one has w(A·B)=w(A)×w(B), where w is width. I hadn't noticed this because, well, I've never really paid a lot of attention to widths, tbh.
sniffnoy: (Kirby)
So here's something unusual that happened recently. I got an email from some guy who wanted to ask me about something that had been added to the ordinal arithmetic Wikipedia page. He says, hey, someone added to the article this alternate recursion for natural multiplication, but didn't include a citation for it... you seem to be a person who knows about ordinal arithmetic; is this alternate definition correct? If so, do you know a citation for it?

I took a look, and, huh, this alternate definition was one I'd never seen before! So, if it was correct, I certainly didn't know a cite for it!

But, was it correct? The claim was that α⊗β was the supremum of all (α'⊗β)⊕β for α'<α together with all (α⊗β')⊕α for β'<β.

This recursion actually works for (α,β)<(ω2,ω2), but it isn't correct; at (ω2,ω2), it fails. The natural product of ω2 and ω2 is of course ω²4, but applying this recursion instead yields ω²3. So I wrote back and said all this and the guy removed it from the article (I didn't feel like getting involved myself).

But, huh! What an odd thing to happen. I wonder who added it -- OK, I guess I can go check that myself if I really care. But I wonder where it came from? Was it just a bit of incorrect original research? Like this person came up with what they thought was an alternate definition, just stuck it on Wikipedia like you're not supposed to do, and then it turned out not to be correct? Probably! But it would have been quite interesting had it actually turned out to be copied from somewhere...

There's a few other notable things here. First off, I'm flattered that someone thought I was the person to ask about ordinal arithmetic! I mean, I can't disagree that I'm a good person to ask, I've spent quite a bit of time examining ordinal arithmetic, not just the ordinary operations and the natural operations and some intermediate operations (that's the paper that caught his attention), but also weirder ones... have I never discussed [the operation that, having invented, I have named] Nim-Jacobsthal multiplication here?? Huh, I'll have to write about sometime. (No idea when I'd ever actually write that up for publication... it's somewhere near the bottom of the pile...) Still, I'm not who I would expect someone to go to first for such a thing as the semi-outsider that I am, even if I am a good choice!

The other thing is that I didn't notice this change myself. This page is actually on my watchlist, you see; the thing is that I haven't actually regularly checked my Wikipedia watchlist in years. And, wow, it looks like I haven't written about this here either.

Basically, some years ago, I got into a stupid edit war over Allan Lichtman's "Keys to the White House". I say it was a "stupid" edit war because it wasn't over the validity of the system or anything (which is obviously terrible!) -- it was purely about phrasing. At some point I just got too worked up about it and couldn't continue further, and, well, it led to me just not really checking my watchlist anymore.

Recently, though, I went and finally removed that page from my watchlist (after reading an article about how the "The Keys to the White House" isn't just bad, it's actually dishonest -- Lichtman goes back and changes things after the fact so that he appears to be always right) so I can start checking it again without encountering that. So far, well, I haven't actually done that. But maybe I will!

(And maybe I'll write sometime here about Nim-Jacobsthal multiplication, but if I do, you'll see why it's near the bottom of the pile publication-wise. :P But I guess that means a blog post is more suited to it...)
sniffnoy: (Kirby)
You can go read it here: https://arxiv.org/abs/2409.03199

I'm not going to bother trying to summarize this one, you can go read it. Hopefully soon Alakh writes his follow-up that will cover the case of strings of length less than ωω, rather than just strings of length less than ωk, like I did here?

(Back in March of last year when I was in Belgium, and he told me how he did it, I was like, how did I miss it! It's so simple! But I did miss it, so, I'm doing ωk and he's taking ωω.)

Next paper in the pipeline will probably be the one on Zeckendorf addition, I've been convinced I need to get that out quickly, although I still haven't heard back from Sophie MacDonald, hm, I guess I didn't write about that here, but, uh, there's a thing she says she has a proof of which it would be very helpful to me if she actually does!

After that... oy, too much to write, too little time to write it in... well, I'll figure something out... (I also should, like, start looking for a new job soon probably...)

(Um, unrelatedly, we're down to just 179 books left to give away!)

There's some other stuff I've been meaning to write about, but, uh, I'll get to that some other time...
sniffnoy: (Kirby)
OK. This is, I think, going to be the last thing I do with well partial orders from quite some time. I haven't had a lot of time for math recently, I know; but when I do have time, it is now, I think, finally time for me to get back to integer complexity and addition chains.

But so let me tell you about what I was just doing with WPOs the past few days.

So: You may recall I had to retract this entry. The proof was wrong. I don't think it's fixable. But, that doesn't mean it's impossible to salvage anything from it! And I thought I could salvage something from it: I thought I could prove a bound for sequences of length less than ωn (for any n<ω). This bound would not be triply-exponential in o(X), but rather would be a tower of n+1 exponentials.

Now obviously this is way more limited than what I originally claimed, and is a much worse bound there too. Still, it's something.

I spent a fair bit of time trying to make this salvage work, but I couldn't make the details work. (Aside obviously from in the ω² case, for which my original proof did in fact work.) Finally, I went back to the original 1959 paper by Erdös and Rado, where they proved this limited case without giving a bound (this was before Nash-Williams proved the general case). And what do you know, it had what I needed!

Erdös and Rado didn't give a bound on the type of the result -- probably because the notion of "type" was still 11 years in the future! But their proof is very proof-minable. That said, a straight proof-mine would yield a tower of 2n exponentials, not n+1. Fortunately, it wasn't too hard to take what they did, and combine it with what I was trying to do, and make the proof work.

So yay! It's not nearly what I originally claimed or was hoping for, but it's something!

But I think I've gone about as far as I can with WPOs for now. So... time to finally return to project #1! (I know, I know, I've said that before. But...)

-Harry
sniffnoy: (Dead face)
(EDIT: Added more specific numbers.)

So, let me talk about some math I did while I disappeared from this site for a while. Or, um, attempted to do. You'll see.

Now, as I think I've said before, I've basically closed down my whole ordinal-operations project, seeing as I've gone as far as I think can go with it. While I haven't had a lot of time to get math done recently, my intent was to finally return to integer complexity and addition chains.

...but, one last WPOs problem popped up to distract me. The problem was this: Given ordinals α and γ, what's the largest possible value for o(γ×X), where o(X)=α? (Assuming there is a largest one, anyway; if not, that would be quite notable itself!)

I'll skip discussing for now why I wanted an answer to this particular, odd-looking problem; there were several reasons but I don't really want to take the time to go into them. Point was, I wanted an answer to this question, and it seemed doable.

Now I'd already attempted this twice before and given up -- basically because it was too tedious. Why was it so tedious? Well, so, I thought I actually had most of an answer already, actually! I thought I had a recursion that would yield the correct answer. I hadn't proven it would, but I'd proven it was an upper bound, and I figured I'd save proving that it was also a lower bound for later, as that would likely be tricky. First, I wanted to solve the recursion. Because after all that's what I wanted to do -- I wasn't going to be satisfied with a recursion for the answer, I wanted a more explicit finite rule! That's what's I do!

How do you solve a complicated transfinite recursion? You grind out values -- by hand -- until you see the pattern, that's how. I'd done this before, tedious as it could get, and I could do it again. But it had never been quite this bad.

Consider the previous times I'd done this. When I was computing "right multichoose", I had one transfinite variable (α) and one finite variable (k). This meant I could do it one value of k at a time and get a handle on things. While when I was doing this for D(α1×...×αm), there were multiple transfinite variables, but they were all symmetric with each other, and the resulting answer wasn't that complicated (in the recursive case, anyway, which is what we're concerned with here), so it didn't take a lot of grinding out hand computations to figure it out.

Here, we had two variables, both transfinite, with no symmetry between them, and a nasty, complicated answer. What could I do? This is why I gave up the first two times -- it's way harder to make a transfinite-by-transfinite table, than to merely make a transfinite-by-infinite table! And staring at what tables I did have, the whole thing just looked nasty, with some regularity to it but also full of exceptions.

But for this third attempt, I had a plan: I'd take it one value of γ at a time, going row-by-row, similarly to how I worked with "right multichoose" earlier. (I later transposed the table so it was column-by-column.) Since each row was transfinite rather than merely infinite, this meant every individual row would itself take substantial work to solve, but, well... it worked. The plan of attack worked and before long I was making substantial progress, progressively figuring out the answer for higher and higher values of γ.

Occasionally I'd find I made a mistake and had to go back and redo things. This can easily happen with this sort of thing unfortunately -- you think you've found the pattern when you haven't yet. But I found the mistakes and I fixed them, however much apparent progress it undid.

So I spent weeks grinding out these hand computations. And then, on a flight to Seattle for work, while grinding out a few more, I noticed an answer that looked, just... too big. The parameters here were γ=ωω+12, α=ωω2. The answer I got was ωωω³. Just way too large, right?

I must have made a mistake, I figured. But being on the plane, well, it was a bit hard to go back and recheck all my previous work right there! So I figured, OK, first I can at least check that I have made a mistake -- I can check it against the naïve bound, 2γ×α. If it's larger, clearly I messed up. And indeed, it was larger! The naïve bound was a mere ωωω3+12. So I'd messed up somewhere.

Except... now that I'd bothered to actually compute the naïve bound, I noticed something: Lots of my answers were too big! Even ones way, way earlier! Clearly I couldn't have messed them all up -- the early ones I'd checked and rechecked. (I'd eventually find that the first of the answers that was too big occurred at γ=ω+1, α=ω. (Naïve bound: ωω+1. My answer: ωω2.) Yes, all the way back at ω+1. Hoo boy. And for γ≤ω, my answers were just equal to the naïve bound.)

So what was the problem here? I didn't think I'd messed up that far back. Could I have gotten the recursion wrong? I rechecked how I'd derived it, and, no, I'd gotten it right.

Eventually I came to the only conclusion not eliminated: I'd correctly proved that the recursion yielded an upper bound, but my hypothesis that it would yield the exact answer, which I'd never even attempted to verify? Yeah, that just wasn't true at all. All I'd done was come up with a hard-to-describe bound that was, frequently, worse than the naïve bound. Welp.

So yeah, lacking any other approach to the problem, I chose to give up for a third time. Man, that's a lot of time I could've saved if I'd just done this basic sanity check -- checking against the naïve bound -- earlier! Oh well. Just going to have to be satisfied with the naïve bound here.

Anyway, yeah, time to finally get back to integer complexity and addition chains, like I said; once I have some free time to do math again, anyway...
sniffnoy: (Kirby)
RETRACTION: This proof doesn't work. It's not actually surjective like I said. It does, however, work when γ=2. That's... something, but not at all what I claimed. Oops. The lower bound works, but is kind of pointless without the upper bound. Anyway, original entry follows.

So. Let's talk about transfinite sequences with finite image over a WPO. We have a WPO X; we have an ordinal α and we are looking at sequences of length less than α with elements drawn from X, but each sequence is only allowed to use finitely many elements of X. I'll denote the result sα(X).

Note that when α≥ω, then assuming |X|≥2, this is no longer antisymmetric, so I'm implicitly considering it modulo equivalences.

Anyway. This, as proved by Nash-Williams, is a WQO. We do need the finite-image restriction; the theorem doesn't work without it (unless our starting WPO was in fact a BPO, in which case it's a theorem that we get a BPO out). Of course, if α≤ω, we also don't need to include the finite-image restriction, because, hey, our strings are finite anyway, that restriction is implicit. (This obviously also happens if X is finite, although in that case it's also true that X is a BPO.) When α=ω, sω(X) is just X*, the set of finite words on X. This case is, of course, just the well-known Higman's Lemma, which is not too hard. Higman's proof was published in 1952.

But proving it for general α, apparently, was harder. In 1954 Rado managed to prove it for α=ω³. In 1959 together with Erdös he managed it for α=ωω. Finally, in 1965, Nash-Williams proved it for general α.

But in fact, I claim, the general case is actually not much harder than Higman's Lemma, and follows from it. I have come up with an astonishingly simple proof of Nash-Williams's theorem, one whose essence I will relate in this blog post. (When will I write this up as a proper paper? Um... eventually. I have a lot of backlog.)

We're going to restrict to the case where α=ωγ, since obviously that is enough to prove the theorem. Before I give the proof of the general case, though, I want to give a proof of a special case that is nice and simpler, namely, when X is not just a WPO but in fact a well order -- say it's an ordinal β.

So, why is sωγ(β) a WPO? Because (β×γ)* surjects monotonically onto it. The map is simply to map each individual symbol (x,y) to a string of ωy copies of x, and then to concatenate the results together. Now, if you regard sωγ(β) simply as a set and ignore the equivalences -- remember, it's not antisymmetric! -- then this is not a surjection. But once you account for equivalences, it is. There you go. Done.

For the general case, though, this isn't good enough. Let's define D(X) to be the set of lower sets in X which can be written as the downward closure of a finite set (these are ordered under inclusion). (This is the same as considering finite subsets of X and ordering them under a certain common order which also lacks antisymmetry, or rather, it's the same once you mod out by equivalences.) Our alphabet, now, is no longer just going to be X×γ. Instead, our alphabet is (X×{0})∪((D(X)\{∅})×(γ\{0})). But the proof is much the same. Nash-Williams's theorem proved with a simple application of Higman's Lemma.

But that's not all! Because, you see, this proof can be used to get upper bounds on the type of sα(X). And the result blows the existing bounds out of the water.

Well, OK -- I say "the existing bounds", but in a sense there aren't really existing bounds. Schmidt gave upper bounds for o(sα(X)) in her habilitation thesis, but her proof actually has a hole in it, that to my knowledge has never been corrected. (I cannot take any credit for spotting this hole; it was pointed out to me by Andreas Weiermann.) Nonetheless, they're still what I compared against. And they were after all correct, seeing as I was able to drastically improve on them! :)

Like, the bounds you get from this, are, at worst, triply-exponential in β, and doubly-exponential in γ (so, you might say, singly-exponential in α). Schmidt's bounds are, um, much larger than exponential. We're talking Klammersymbols and Veblen functions. So yeah. This is much better.

The question is, are the bounds we can get from this proof the best possible? (Excluding the trivial case where β≤1.) Note of course this case only directly applies to when α is a power of ω, but when it's not, you can get bounds by putting together cases where it is, basically. I'm not going to go into detail on that case here; I want to focus on the core case where α is a power of ω. My suspicion is yes, but proving corresponding lower bounds can be quite difficult. So far I can prove this to be optimal in a few cases, but not much. I don't know if I'll actually get much further with this anytime soon, or really have time to work on this further, but with such a large improvement I just had to put this out there...

ADDENDUM: OK actually I found a simple way to get lower bounds, although not matching lower bounds; just lower bounds of roughly the same order. Although in a few special cases it happens to match.
sniffnoy: (SMPTE)
So, as a special case of the theorems in Diana Schmidt's habilitation thesis, one gets that the maximum extending ordinal of the set of finite plane trees is at most the small Veblen ordinal.

It turns out that in 2005, Herman Jervell published a paper describing an order on the set of finite plane trees, extending the partial order, and with order type the small Veblen ordinal.

Therefore, the maximum extending ordinal of the set of finite plane trees is equal to the small Veblen ordinal.

What's annoying, though, is that Jervell didn't state his result in that form -- presumably because he wasn't aware of the theory of maximum extending ordinals. This is really annoying, because it means that the result stated in that form probably won't appear in the literature for quite some time. It's such an immediate consequence of Schmidt's upper bound and Jervell's implicit lower bound that it's not remotely separately publishable. Blargh.

Well, I wanted to publicize this fact here, at least. :P The maximum extending ordinal of the set of finite plane trees is equal to the small Veblen ordinal.

Edit: I guess actually there is a well-known connection between Kruskal's tree theorem and the small Veblen ordinal, the latter being the proof-theoretic ordinal of the former. Are these statements equivalent, meaning actually this has long been known in a different formalism? Um. I have no idea! I just care about order, I don't care about proof theory. But if maximum extending ordinals are actually the same as proof-theoretic ordinals of well-quasi-ordering statements, then I guess there's more of them out there than I thought? IDK, I am a bit skeptical of this. But logic -- like, proper logic, as opposed to order theory like I like to think about -- makes my head hurt... I'll probably just not look into this for now...

Edit again: Hold on, shouldn't the proof-theoretic ordinal be *greater* than the maximum extending ordinal? Apparently not, but... blargh. I'm going to ask math.SE about this.

Edit a third time:: Ha! So one of the people who proved the proof-theory statement mentioned above was... Andreas Weiermann! He's certainly familiar with the theory of maximum extending ordinals. The paper even cites Schmidt! It *doesn't* mention a connection between the two notions, though, leading me to suspect that none is known (although it's from 1993).

You know what? I'll skip asking math.SE (or really, MathOverflow, this is seeming more suited to there) for now; I'll just ask Weiermann himself in July...

2, e, omega

Apr. 6th, 2018 02:22 am
sniffnoy: (Golden Apple)
This is not the entry I said I would write -- I'll get to that some other day -- but I want to write about this too. (This entry is based on some notes I sent to Andreas Weiermann, but I think it deserves to be posted somewhere a bit more public. :) )

What do the numbers 2, e, and ω -- as in, the first infinite ordinal -- have in common?

(Yes, those aren't all "numbers" in the same sense. But we'll ignore that for now. And yes they do all make sense as surreal numbers, but I'm not thinking here in terms of surreal numbers but rather being deliberately informal with my use of the word "number". Although, surreal numbers will come in eventually...)

Well, they're all particularly important bases for exponents, of course. But there's more to it than that.

What is ex? Why, it's the sum over k of xk/k!, of course. You know what's approximately xk/k! -- specifically, a little less than it? That's right! It's (x choose k). (Or it's no larger for x≥0, anyway; but I'm basically considering whole numbers as my "prototypical" values of x here.)

And if we take the sum over k of (x choose k), we get... 2x. Well, OK -- certainly this works for whole numbers, but for, say, real numbers it only works if x>-1 (although it still works for all real numbers as an Abel sum). Nonetheless, the point is clear -- whether we consider it for general x or restrict ourselves to whole numbers, the sum of (x choose k) is, morally, 2x.

But there's a third thing in this family. What if instead of (x choose k), we were to use ((x multichoose k)), which is also approximately xk/k!, but a little bit above instead of a little bit below? Now ((x multichoose k)) is equal to (-1)k(-x choose k), so by the binomial theorem, the sum is... 0-x? And indeed, for x<0 this converges to 0, for x=0 we have 1, and for x>0 this series diverges.

What I want to claim is that this 0-x should, in some sense, be interpreted, as ωx. Here I'm kind of cavalierly mixing real numbers and ordinals, I know (and not doing so properly via surreal numbers, just deliberately being informal). Now at this point this clearly sounds crazy. But there's more to it than that.

We turn to the work of Andreas Weiermann on finite multisets in well partial orders. Let X be a well partial order; we can put a well partial order on M(X), the set of finite multisets in X, by saying that S≤T if there is an injection ι:S→T such that ι(s)≥s for all s∈S. Weiermann determined a function f such that, for any well partial order X, o(M(X))=f(o(X)).

What is this f? Well, it's multiplicative, so to define it we need only describe its output on powers of ω. Specifically, we have:

  • f(ω0)=f(1)=ω;
  • If α>0 is not of the form ε+k for some epsilon number ε and some finite k, then f(ωα)=ωωα;
  • And if α is of the form ε+k as described above, then f(ωα)=ωωα+1.


Now, Weiermann didn't mention this in his paper -- quite possibly he didn't notice it at the time, though of course I've since pointed it out to him -- but this is almost exactly the formula for the surreal exponential of an ordinal, as found by Harry Gonshor. (I told you surreals would show up eventually!) The only difference, of course, is that exp(1) is e, not omega. But otherwise they're the same; if α is zero or a limit ordinal (not necessarily a power of omega, note!), we have f(α)=exp(α).

But there is that difference for 1. For the exponential we get e; for multisets we get ω.

Do you see the connection to what we had before? If we want to think about finite multisets of a set of size n, we could think of that as the sum over k of ((n multichoose k)). And so Weiermann's work tells us that, in some sense, this some is morally equal to ωn. And more generally instead of n we could put in an ordinal α; we wouldn't get out ωα, mind you, but we'd get out something that was the same as exp(α) but with e replaced by ω.

Whereas if we were to sum up nk/k!, why, obviously that is the exponential, exp(n). Which here corresponds for more general ordinal α to exp(α), just left as it is.

But of course we need that third possibility -- 2. Where is that? Well, 2x of course comes from summing up (n choose k), i.e., 2n represents (finite) subsets of n. As in, actual sets, rather than multisets. So if X is a WPO, and we let M'(X) be the WPO of finite sets in X, what is o(M'(X))?

Well, Weiermann didn't compute this. And I haven't attempted to prove it. But I think it's pretty easy to see what it should be -- and I'll bet it's probably not hard to prove if you just go back to Weiermann's proof and modify it appropriately. (EDIT 26 May 2018: I have now in fact proven this.) Specifically, we should get an f' just like f above, except that instead of f(ω0)=f(1)=ω, we get f(ω0)=f(1)=2. So, just like the surreal exponential, but now with 2 instead of e, instead of with ω instead of e. And now the analogy is complete -- assuming this is correct, we would have that, for an ordinal α, the sum of (α choose k) is, morally, the same as exp(α) except with e replaced by 2.

In short, we get this same formula three times -- once with 2, for sets and choose; once with e, for the exponential and divided powers; and once with ω, for multisets and multichoose.

Again, formally much of the above is nonsense. But informally, I think it's really something. 2, e, ω, the three most important bases, corresponding to choose, divided power, and multichoose; with this analogy working in somse sense for whole numbers, for real numbers, and for ordinals. (And maybe one can in some sense make it work for surreals, for all I know, but I'm not going to attempt that, and to my mind there's enough here without that.)

Striking, isn't it?
sniffnoy: (Dead face)
So, OK, before I get to other things, I want to post a retraction here. (Not sure that I'm going to go back to relevant earlier entries and edit them.)

Previously here I've claimed to have proven the inequality that, for any ordinal α and any WPO X, one has o(Rev(α,X))≤o(Rev(α,o(X))). (And if X has an initial element, one has o(Rev0(α,X))≤o(Rev0(α;o(X))) -- it's really this latter claim I'm going to focus on.)

My claimed proof of this was wrong. I have not thus far been able to fix it. I still think it is true.

Note that none of this affects my formula for Rev0(α;β) for α and β ordinals and multidimesional generalizations (and other variants) of such; these proofs (which I finally recently got around to writing up properly) are unaffected.

I have been able to recover the inequality in a number of special cases. It's easily seen to be true when α and X are both finite. My original proof basically still works if α is finite; and if α=ω, I can prove it as a corollary of Andreas Weiermann's work on the WPO of finite multisets of a given WPO. Meanwhile, a different proof works if instead X is finite, and I think I can extend it also to the case where o(X)=ω. In fact I think I can possibly go further and get it to work when o(X)<ω2. There are other special cases I've managed to recover too -- generally requiring that we take α<ω² and then putting conditions on the form o(X) takes -- but I'm not going to go listing them all here. Still, in general, I have not been able to recover it thus far.

One other special case I wanted to mention that I can recover is -- well, remember, the original reason I wanted to prove this inequality was to prove the following two inequalites, where ((α multichoose β)) is to be interpreted as o(Rev(β,α)):

((α⊗β multichoose γ)) ≥ ((α multichoose γ)) ⊗ ((β multichoose γ))

((α multichoose β⊗γ)) ≤ (( ((α multichoose β)) multichoose γ))

(These are companion to a third inequality, namely,
((α multichoose β⊕γ)) ≤ ((α multichoose β)) ⊗ ((α multichoose γ)),
but this one can be proven pretty easily without my conjectured inequality.)

Anyway, I can report at least that the two inequalities above are definitely true -- I proved it the stupid way, by computing both sides via my formula and then comparing. Still, this is definitely an unsatisfying proof, compared to the proof we'd obtain with a proof of my conjectural inequality above.

Well, at least the formula in the total case (especially in multiple dimensions) is quite noteworthy and will make a good paper on its own, assuming I can't recover the more general partial case!
sniffnoy: (Kirby)
So, here's an idea I had the other day: My inequality that o(Rev(α,B))≤o(Rev(α,o(B))) doesn't work if you replace o(B) by B', an extension of B. But what if you replace it by B', an extension of B satisfying o(B')=o(B)?

(We can also more generally replace α by A, a WPO, although then we have to make the additional assumption that everything involved is well-defined, and also in that case I haven't actually proven the original inequality in general)

I mean, it's a fairly natural generalization, right? And like obviously it works if A and B are both finite. And there's also some cases where, based on what I already know, one can see that they have to actually be equal (both being equal to o(Rev(α,o(B)))).

But in fact I'm pretty sure now that this generalization is false! One can take α=ω, B=N²+N³, and B'=N+N³. Since N² can be extended to N, B' is an extension of B; and o(B)=o(B')=ω³. And yet things don't work out quite the same way when you take weakly decreasing maps from ω into these partial orders. Because, and I haven't checked this totally thoroughly, but I'm pretty sure that (with the additional restriction that the functions must be eventually 0) the left hand side is equal to ωω5, while the right hand side is ωω4.

(Without that restriction, it's only slightly different; ωω5+2ω3+3 vs ωω4+1ω3+3.)

So, so much for that! That said, it can probably still be proven under more restrictive conditions. For instance, maybe if A is finite. And I'd definitely bet on it being true if A=α is a power of ω and B is finite; probably more generally if A=α is total and B is finite. (Probably also if o(A) is initial and B is finite.) Beyond that it's hard to say. One can probably get it to work with other smallness conditions -- I had to take o(B)=ω³ to get a counterexample, can one prove that's the smallest? -- but I don't know to what extent I'll bother...

EDIT: OK, here's a counterexample with B finite: Take α=ω once again, take B'=2×2, and take B that looks as follows:
*
|
*   *
 \ /
  *
Maybe it can still work if A is finite, though, at least!

EDIT: Nope, it fails then too! Take A=2, and take B=(1∪ω)+(1∪ω), where here by "union" I mean "disjoint union"; you can extend the lower copy of 1∪ω to an ω to get B'=ω+(1∪ω). Then o(Rev(2,B))=ω²3+ω+2, but o(Rev(2,B'))=ω²3+ω+1.

(I think this case should work also with A=ω, but I haven't done a proper check. I could be wrong there.)

So, basically, this one is unsalvageable. It works in the trivial case when A and B are both finite, and some other trivial or not-so-trivial cases I can prove, but not in any decent generality. I'm calling this one a wrap.

-Harry
sniffnoy: (Kirby)
EDIT 8/3: One tiny correction, see struck out portion below. Also, pretty sure I really have proved this now.

So!

OK, so it turns out that despite my big "EDIT: This entry is wrong" warning on my last entry, almost everything it is correct. Just, not quite for the reasons I thought.

My formula for "multidimensional natural multichoose", in the case of powers of ω, was indeed correct. What was not correct was the part I didn't write down -- what if the inputs are not powers of ω? In this entry I will describe the correct formula for this.

...OK, I say "correct" but in reality I haven't actually sat down and fully proved it. I'm pretty certain this has to be correct, though. If somehow I'm wrong, well, I'll put a big edit on this later. :P

So. Recall, we're given ordinals α1 through αn, and we want to compute the maximum extending ordinal of the poset of lower sets of α1×...×αn that are "strictly bounded in each dimension", i.e., none of the projections onto any of the αi are surjective. (To ignore some stupid stuff, I'm going to assume all αi are nonzero. You can rephrase the below so it's still correct even if one of them is zero, but I don't want to have to phrase it that way here.)

Here is what we do. First, we write out each ordinal in Cantor normal form; we're going to use the "weak" Cantor normal form, where exponents can be repeated but there are no coefficients. Each ordinal can be broken down into "segments" corresponding to the Cantor normal form, each of length a power of ω. Now, we're looking at the product of these ordinals, so this breaks up the product into finitely many "boxes"; again, the dimensions of these boxes are all powers of ω.

For ease of talking about it, I am going to place these boxes on a grid. Suppose that αi has ri segments. We will associate each box to an element of {1,...,r1}×...×{1,...,rn}.

Now, as per ancient mathematical tradition, we are going to take a (natural) sum of (natural) products (I'll omit the "natural" from here on out). (Indeed, if we were in 2 dimensions -- the case I'd solved earlier -- it would even be a sum over paths, with the value of each path being a product based on what it passed through. A wonderful mathematical tradition! Unfortunately, things don't quite work out that way in the general case.) The set we are going to be summing over is the set of lower sets of {1,...,r1-1}×...×{1,...,rn-1}. That's right -- we only want lower sets that don't use the highest possible coordinate in any dimension. Not unlike the problem we're trying to solve.

So for each such lower set, we need to get a value. What we're going to do is take the "frontier" of the lower set; to define that, let me introduce some notation. I'll use ε to denote the vector (1,...,1). A point p will be on the frontier of S if it is not in S, but p-ε is; or if p is along one of the lower boundaries (p has 1 among its coordinates), so that p-ε is "out of bounds".

So, are we going to take the product of values associated to the boxes on the frontier of S? Not quite. There's an additional restriction. For each point p, I'll define ε(p) to be the vector which is 1 in each dimension where the corresponding box is finite (i.e. has length 1), and 0 in each dimension where it's infinite. The box associated to the point p will only be included in the product if both p and p-ε(p) are on the frontier. (Note that if the box is infinite in all dimensions -- if it's "full-dimensional" -- then p-ε(p) is just p again.)

So now we can associate a value to each box included in our product. How do we do that? Well, write down the box's dimensions; let's drop all of them that are finite (i.e. 1), so we'll be looking at a box, possibly lower-dimensional, all of whose dimensions are infinite.

If the box has dimension 0, its value is 1. If the box has dimension 1, its value is equal to its length.

If the box has dimension 2 or more, its value is given according to the formula I stated earlier; if its dimensions are ωβ_1×...×ωβ_k, then its value is ωω^g(β_1,...,β_k), where g(β_1,...,β_k) is given as follows:
1. If at least two of the βi are infinite, or at least one of them is of the form ε+k where ε is an ε-number and k is finite, then g(β_1,...,β_k) is the natural sum of the βi.
2. Otherwise, it is the natural sum minus 1. (And it is guaranteed in this case that the natural sum will be a successor, so you will be able to subtract 1.)

(Note how different the rule is in dimension 2 or higher from in dimension 1! In dimension 2 or higher, the value of the box always has the form ωω^γ; this is not true at all in dimension 1.)

(Isn't the rule about the value of a box of dimension 0 unnecessary, seeing as such a box can never be included in the product anyway? Yes... unless you're in dimension 0 in the first place. I'm a believer in including trivial cases. Yes. You could actually leave the value undefined; I decided not to, but whatever, it's arbitrary.)

So, to summarize: You sum over lower sets of the set of boxes, excluding the outer boundaries; for each lower set S you multiply over boxes p on the frontier of S such that p-ε(p) is also on on the frontier of S; and the value of a box is given by the formula above. Not too bad, really. Much simpler than the general rule for "right-multichoose", certainly!



Now that that's out of the way, let's talk about inequalities. Specifically, the inequality o(Rev(A,B))≤o(Rev(A,o(B))), where A and B are WPOs, and we assume that Rev(A,B) and Rev(A,o(B)) are also WPOs.

Previously, I had proved this inequality when A is total, by mimicking the proof of the 2-dimensional case of the above. I then claimed (in the entry below) that by iterating this, one could prove it more generally when A is a product of ordinals, rather than just an ordinal.

That iterative proof does not work. Fortunately, now that I know how to handle the multidimensional case, indeed I can say that it is true when A is a product of ordinals, by mimicking the proof of the multidimensional case.

But I've been able to prove some other nice special cases of this inequality as well -- ones dependent only on the values of o(A) and o(B). Unfortunately, the methods used here are seriously unlikely to extend to other cases. Still, a month or two ago I would have been surprised to make basically any progress at all on the case where A might not be total.

So, first recall that, for trivial reasons, it works if A and B are both finite. Also, using the stuff above, it's not too hard to see that it works if A is finite, and o(B) is a power of ω (although somehow I apparently missed this earlier).

But I've also got it working now if we assume that B is finite... and that o(A) is an initial ordinal. Yeah, that's a pretty restrictive condition. Oh well. It'll have to do for now. (Note that a WPO A with o(A) initial is in some sense "close to total". Though maybe not too close; you can have A with o(A)=ω1 but Rev(A,2) not a WPO.)

In fact I've also got it working if o(B)=ω and o(A) is an initial ordinal. Or if we reverse it -- if o(A)=ω and o(B) is an initial ordinal. Unfortunately, I have not been able to "complete the rectangle" and get it working when o(A) and o(B) are both initial ordinals (unless one of them is ω, obviously).

Still, considerable progress! Maybe this inequality really is true in general. Or maybe I just haven't been clever enough in trying to come up with a counterexample. Well, we'll see -- hopefully, anyway.

-Harry
sniffnoy: (Kirby)
EDIT 7/27: The statements in this entry may very well be FALSE! It turns out my formula is very wrong in more than two dimensions! Now, admittedly, the case I actually bothered to state here might well still be right; in fact, I'm guessing that more likely than not, it is. (OK, having gone over it again now actually I'm pretty sure it is.) But the more general formula they are a part of is false, and I will have to see about correcting this. More on this in an entry soon to come.

So I wrote this down in an email to John, and then realized I should probably post it here as well.

So let's consider "big multichoose". I want to consider the variant that I denoted ((α multichoose β))0, where we consider all weakly decreasing functions from beta to alpha that are eventually 0.

This can also be considered as the set of lower sets of α×β that are "bounded in each direction", in the sense that neither projection is surjective.

Now of course if α and β are finite -- say n and m -- then this is just counting the number of partitions that fit in an (n-1)x(m-1) box, i.e., it's (n+m-2 choose n-1). (Which is different from multichoose, obviously, but nicer for the purposes I want to consider here.)

So suppose we generalize from two ordinal factors in the product to multiple. What happens now? Can we get a formula similar to my formula for dimension 2?

Answer: We can! It's not hard, either, once you know the dimension 2 case (OK, I haven't sat down and fully proven it, but the proof should be similar).

The thing is that I'd considered this before but always dismissed it because, well -- counting partitions in a given box is easy; counting plane partitions in a given box is less easy; and in dimensions higher than 3, things apparently get pretty wild pretty fast. So I figured, well, if the finite case is intractable, what's the point of attempting the infinite case?

Of course, this is silly, because if you can reduce the infinite case to the finite one, that's still significant. Like really, in the dimension 2 case, if you plug in finite ordinals, my formula doesn't actually say "OK, it's (n+m-2 choose n-1)", rather it says, OK, count the partitions in this box. We just know what that is. So in higher dimensions it will just fail to reduce the problem in the finite case, but in the infinite case, at least now it is a finite description.

So anyway as before the main core of the problem is when all the factors are powers of ω (and not equal to 1). So let's say we're putting in ωα_1, ..., ωα_n. Also, say n≥2; if n=1 (or n=0) the problem A. is trivial and B. is *not* given by the formula below, so let's exclude that. (And yes there is a good reason that dimension≥2 turns out different from dimension 1, but I'm not going to go into that here.)

So what we get out is ωω^g(α_1,...,α_n), for some g. What's g? Well, it's basically the same as before:

If either:
1. one of the αi is of the form epsilon+finite, or
2. at least two of the αi are infinite
then g(α1,...,αn) is just the natural sum of the αi.
But otherwise, it's the natural sum, minus 1.

(Before I did it out, I had assumed that condition (2) would require that all of the αi be infinite, but in fact, only two of them need to be. This is the influence of dimension 2, the starting point for the pattern, being felt all the way up the chain.)

(Note again that in dimensions 1 and 0, the pattern is broken and there is no g; in dimension 0 it's always 1 and in dimension 1 it's the identity. We don't generally get something of the form ωω^α.)

This got me wondering if I could prove some bound on o(Rev(α1×...×αn,X)) for any WPO X by similar means, like how earlier I proved a bound on o(Rev(α,X)), but then I realized I could actually just prove that by taking my earlier bound and iterating it; I don't need to get into anything fancy there (which is good, it's ugly enough in the two-dimensional case I did already need to do by hand).

EDIT 7/25: The above paragraph seems to be false! Yikes, I may have to do that case by hand as well!

So, one more addition to the lore of "big multichoose"...

-Harry
sniffnoy: (Kirby)
It works! OK, so...

All ordinal arithmetic in this entry will be natural. All addition will be natural addition and all multiplication will be natural multiplication. Basically, for now, I am embedding the ordinals in the surreals. Also, all rings will be commutative.

So you'll recall I came up with notions of "natural multichoose" and "natural choose" (aka "big multichoose" and "big choose") for ordinals. These are defined order-theoretically, remember: ((α multichoose β)) is the largest ordinal extending the partial order of weakly decreasing functions from β to α, and (α choose β) is the same with strictly decreasing functions. (Obviously, this latter is zero unless β is finite.)

So I spent quite a bit of time figuring out how to compute these, but that's a problem I solved a while back. Also you'll recall I figured out some inequalities for them. But just a few weeks ago I realized something -- that while I was looking at inequalities, I had missed at least one straight-up identity!

While the description of how to compute ((α multichoose β)) in general is more complicated (though not that complicated!), the description of how to compute ((α multichoose k)), where k is finite, is quite simpler. Here's one simple way of stating it, in the form of two rules that determine it completely: 1. We'll start with powers of ω; ((ωα multichoose k))=ωαk. 2. Now extend by Vandermonde's convolution. (Vandermonde's identity, while usually stated for choose, is also valid for multichoose, with the same proof.)

Now I had never described it in that form before; and yet, that's plainly what it was. Somehow, until the other week, I never realized that, wait, natural multichoose satisfies Vandermonde's identity! (So, for that matter, does natural choose. The rule for computing natural choose is the same as the rule for computing natural multichoose, except that of course (1 choose k) is 0 instead of 1 for k>1.)

This got me wondering about the possibility of a version of Vandermonde's identity holding even when the thing on the bottom is infinite -- after all, we're using natural addition here, and a given ordinal has only finitely many natural summands. Unfortunately, the obvious analogue doesn't work. For choose it does... but only because if you have something infinite on the bottom, both sides are automatically 0. So that's not interesting. Let's forget about putting infinite things on the bottom; while it's a fruitful subject (that I've written about elsewhere!), for the remainder of this entry, I will only consider choosing or multichoosing whole numbers.

So this got me wondering -- what about further identities? There are various combinatorial identities we could try, and I could go over how I came up with ones to try, but, well, most of them didn't work, so I think I'll just skip that.

However, one thing did appear to work. Let's talk about λ-rings. A λ-ring is a ring equipped with operations λk for each whole number k, which must satisfy certain identities. The quantity λk(x) is meant to be analogous to (x choose k) -- or, more analogously, the k'th exterior power of x. An equivalent description is in terms of operations σk, analogous to ((x multichoose k)), or, more analogously, to the k'th symmetric power of x; these satisfy similar identities but not the same ones. The λk and σk are interdefinable via σk(x)=(-1)kλk(-x).

In fact one simple way of constructing a λ-ring is binomial rings. If you have a ring R with no Z-torsion and where for any x, (x choose n) is in R -- that's (x choose n) in the usual polynomial sense -- then you get a λ-ring this way, with λk(x)=(x choose k) and σk(x)=((x multichoose k)). These are basically the simplest examples of λ-rings. We'll return to these later.

So, the one thing that appeared to work is that natural multichoose appeared to satisfy the identities of a λ-ring! The σ-identities that is, not the λ-identities. (Unfortunately, natural choose does *not* satisfy the identities of a λ-ring. You do of course get operations λk from taking Sk to be natural multichoose, but while I can find an order-theoretic interpretation of these, it's rather artificial.) I haven't listed out what the identities are, but basically, aside from a few trivial ones, there's identities for λk(x+y), for λk(xy), and for λmn(x)). (And of course one can write down analogous identities for σk.) The addition identity is just Vandermonde, and works the same way for σk; the mutliplication and iteration identities are more complicated, and are different for σk; I won't attempt to describe them here.

And actually there's a pretty simple proof that ordinal multichoose satisfies these σ-identities, though it took me a while to realize, and I spent quite a while just wondering. Basically it follows quite easily once you realize that if you have an ordinal α=ωα_1+...+ωα_r (written in "weak Cantor normal form", where there are no coefficients but the exponents are weakly decreasing), then a simple way of describing ((α multichoose k)) is as hkα_1,...,ωα_r), where hk is a complete homogeneous polynomial. (If you replace hk here with ek, the elementary symmetric polynomial, you get the λk corresponding to this σk. Which, remember, is not natural choose.)

So this is pretty good -- natural multichoose satisfies the identities of a λ-ring. There's just one thing lacking, and that's that ordinals don't form a ring. So actually they're a "λ-semiring". Or a "σ-semiring", I guess; I'm a little doubtful that the equivalence works without negatives (even though in this case the λk do take ordinals to ordinals). (EDIT: OK actually it probably works. Whatever.)

So that raises the question -- can we extend these operations, these σk, to differences of ordinals in a sensible manner, and make an actual λ-ring? Or, hell, let's go all the way -- how about we extend them all the way to the surreals? Can we make the surreals into a λ-ring like this, so that when we restrict the σk down to the ordinals, we get back the order-theoretically meaningful natural multichoose?

Note of course that there's already a λ-ring structure on the surreals coming from the fact that, as a characteristic 0, they're certainly a binomial ring. But this would be a different λ-ring structure; as a binomial ring, we'd have σ²(ω)=ω²½+ω½, whereas under this one, we'd have σ²(ω)=ω².

Basically, with ordinals, if we had a "monomial", ωαa, then what we had was σkαa)=ωαk((a multichoose k)), and then you can extend by Vandermonde. (For λ instead of σ, just use choose instead of multichoose.) Well, surreal numbers have something like Cantor normal form -- Conway normal form. The differences are that, firstly, the exponents can be arbitrary surreal numbers rather than just ordinals; secondly, the coefficients can be real numbers rather than just whole numbers; and thirdly, rather than being a finite sum, it can be an arbitrary well-ordered decreasing sum. So this gives us a way of extending it; define σkαa)=ωαk((a multichoose k)), where now α can be surreal and a can be real, and then extend in the obvious fashion. (Or you can do the same with λ instead of σ.) Of course, the question remained: Does this form a λ-ring? Vandermonde (and the trivialities) are easy enough to prove, but the multiplication and iteration identities are nasty and hard to reason about.

Now, since Conway normal forms can be added and multiplied in the obvious way, this means that surreal numbers are isomorphic to the field of Hahn series over the real numbers with the value group being the surreal numbers themselves; the isomorphism is given by just replacing ω with T-1. (Yes, the value group is also the surreal numbers; that's the sort of weird thing that happens when you've got surreal numbers.) So the question now becomes -- if we have a λ-ring, and we take a ring of Hahn series over that λ-ring, is it also a λ-ring? Where here, in this more general case, we're defining λk(Tαa) to be Tαkλk(a). (Or the same thing but with σ instead of λ.) Right, in the case we care about, that of the surreals, the base ring is the reals, and we're considering it as a λ-ring by considering it as a binomial ring.

Well, I learned, from Darij Grinberg's text on λ-rings, that in fact this is well-known if, rather than Hahn series, we are just taking polynomials. So, could I extend it? To power series, to Laurent series, to Puiseux series -- to Hahn series?

Well, long story short, yes. At first I had some trouble because Hahn series, unlike power series or Laurent series or Puiseux series, aren't actually the limit of finite sums of their monomials; so when I tried to imitate the proofs Grinberg gives, which work by first doing it for monomials and then extending by Vandermonde, I ran into a problem. I wanted to just do the same thing but extending by Vandermonde and also continuity, and this worked for power series and Laurent series and Puiseux series, but not for Hahn series. I was just going to go ask MathOverflow, honestly. But today I made one last try -- I imitated Grinberg's proofs, but this time, instead of doing it for monomials like he does, I just plugged in the whole damn sum. And it worked! (Note that Grinberg's proof basically offloads the hard part to the verification that for a λ-ring A, Λ(A), which I'm not going to define here, is a λ-ring.) I was able to keep all the infinite sums and products to contexts where they truly made sense and could be manipulated sensibly without having to worry about any sort of convergence (or where such convergence is easily proved, like rings of formal power series).

So that's it then! Hahn series over a λ-ring form a λ-ring; in particular the surreal numbers, considered as Hahn series over the real numbers, form a λ-ring; and when you restrict the σk operations of this λ-ring down to the ordinals, you get natural multichoose, which is order-theoretically meaningful. And therefore (although we knew this already by easier means) the natural multichoose operations also satisfy the identities of the σk in a λ-ring, because they are the σk in a λ-ring.

So, that's one more thing to write up someday...

EDIT: Fixed interdefinition of λk and σk, oops.
EDIT: Found a reference for the equivalence, thanks to Darij Grinberg! Hazewinkel, Gubareni, and Kirichenko's "Algebra, Rings, and Modules" volume 3 goes over it. It uses σ rather than S, so I'm changing that in the entry.

-Harry
sniffnoy: (Sonic)
EDIT, 2/25, 7 PM: I'm no longer confident that the claims in this entry are correct. I've found a serious mistake in my proof. It seems like fixable, but I haven't succeeded so far.

EDIT, 2/27, 1:30 AM: THIS ENTRY AS ORIGINALLY POSTED IS FALSE. I've edited to be true, but, uh, much less interesting. False statements are in strikethrough, added statements are in bold.

So I've been thinking more about big multichoose and WPOs recently. I'll use Rev(A,B) to denote the set of order-reversing maps from A to B.

So recall, I figured out how to compute o(Rev(α,β)) (where α and β are ordinals) and showed that for any WPO X, o(Rev(α,X))≤o(Rev(α,o(X))). Or to state it another way -- which is the way the proof actually goes -- I figured out how to compute an upper bound on o(Rev(α,X)) based on α and o(X), and showed that when X is total, this upper bound is attained.

The other day I noticed that in fact, if o(X) is an (infinite) initial ordinal, then this upper bound is also attained. (Because in this case, o(X) embeds in X.) In other words, in this case, the value of o(Rev(α,X)) depends only on α and o(X), and not on any further details about X.

Could there be other values of o(X) for which this is true, I wondered? More specifically, could it be true whenever o(X) is a power of ω? (It's certainly not true when o(X) isn't a power of ω.)

It took me quite a while to find a counterexample, but eventually I did: Take α=ω, and take X to be Rado's order. In this case, o(X)=ω², and o(Rev(ω,ω²))=ωω²+2, while o(Rev(ω,X))=ωω2+2.

It should not have taken me so long to find a counterexample. A simpler counterexample is α=ω, X=ω×ω. I computed o(Rev(ω,ω×ω)) incorrectly earlier, and got ωω²+2; in fact it is ωω2+2, the same as for Rado's order. What's more, this is really easy to see, since Rev(X,Y×Z) = Rev(X,Y) × Rev(X,Z), so it's just the natural product of two copies of omega multichoose omega, which is ωω+1. Somehow I entirely failed to notice this.

So that's it -- problem solved, right? Well, not quite. Rado's order is a famous example of a WPO which is not a BPO. This leaves the question: Could the statement be true if we require that X be a BPO? Or what if instead of requiring that X be a BPO, we just insist on the weaker requirement that Rev(X,2) be a WPO, or something like that? So far, I have no counterexample to this. It's definitely not true, see above.

Unfortunately, I know very little about the theory of BPOs, so I think I am unlikely to resolve such a question (though perhaps a bit more likely if it turns out that only a weaker hypothesis is needed). But I thought this was worth putting out there.

Note, by the way, that if o(X) is a power of ω and, in addition, we have that α is finite, then the statement is true without any further hypothesis on X; hence why my counterexample above had α=ω. Note that o(X) is also as small as a counterexample can be, as o(X)=ω². (This remark is still true.)

By the way, I also tried proving the statement, by means analogous to how I proved that the bound is attained if X is total, and found that much of a proof went surprisingly well. There were three problems that arose, essentially:
1. How do we go from the case where α is a power of ω, to the case where it isn't? I was able to solve this problem.
2. How can we handle the case where α is a power of ω and o(X)=ωβ, where β is a limit ordinal? I was able to solve this problem (assuming an inductive hypothesis, of course).
3. How can we handle the case where α is a power of ω and o(X)=ωβ, where β is a successor ordinal? This turned out to be a real problem, even assuming an inductive hypothesis! And indeed, the counterexample I mentioned above has o(X)=ω². But the fact that it's just this one part of the proof that turned out to be a problem does incline me to think that it might indeed be possible to prove it with additional hypotheses on X.

Note: If X has a bottom element, everything I'm saying still works if we restrict to functions which are eventually 0. Pretty sure. And of course if α finite we can restrict to strictly decreasing functions.

EDIT: It totally works! Just using the hypothesis that Rev(X,2) is a WPO, too! This is amazing! Not only that, but there's a generalization that covers both this case and the case where X is total! (Though not also the case where o(X) is initial.) Namely, you require that Rev(X,2) be a WPO, and that X=X1+...+Xr, where each o(Xi) is a power of ω. In the case where X is total you have Cantor normal form, and in the amazing case, r=1. And once again it works if we remove the requirement that Rev(X,2) be WPO but add the requirement that α be finite.

EDIT 2: Sorry, just noticed a mistake in my proof. I think this is fixable.

-Harry
sniffnoy: (Dead face)
Well, it's time for me to declare a big "oops".

My paper Transfinitely iterated natural multiplication of ordinal numbers was recently rejected from the Notre Dame Journal of Formal Logic, and for good reason.

The mathematical assertions aren't wrong. But contrary to what I said, it's actually quite easy to prove Jacobsthal's distributivity law by transfinite induction, and I entirely missed this. My thanks to the anonymous referee for pointing this out. The referee also claimed this is true of my theorem that a⊗(b⊕c)=a⊗b⊗a⊗c, which I haven't yet checked, but is presumably also true.

EDIT Nov 12: OK, now I'm confused. I've tried to check it today, and... all I could get was an inequality. I'm not sure what to make of this.
EDIT Nov 13: OK, I figured out the mistake, disregard the above.

This cuts out a lot of what I said; I'll have to rewrite a lot! It also turns it into, well, more of an expository paper. I mean, I think it's some good exposition; I would still really like to see it published somewhere, because it summarizes and connects up some things that haven't been connected up elsewhere. But I'm going to need to find somewhere else to publish it, that's for sure.

Mind you, there still is the problem of finding an order-theoretic proof of these laws. Of course, that first requires an order-theoretic interpretation of a×b (Jacobsthal's multiplication) and a⊗b (super-Jacobsthal exponentiation).

But the former of those now does in fact exist! Take a look at this paper: Some iterated natural sums, by Paolo Lipparini. It gives an order-theoretic interpretation of the infinitary natural sum, and therefore, implicitly, Jacobsthal multiplication.

This order-theoretic interpretation does not make it immediately obvious that a×(b⊕c)=(a×b)⊕(a×c), nor that a×(b×c)=(a×b)×c; but just having an interpretation at all is a huge start. I have written to Lipparini and he agrees the problem is interesting.

One thing worth noting about this order-theoretic characterization of a×b is that while it makes it obvious that ab≤a×b, it doesn't make it obvious that a×b≤a⊗b. Of course, what Lipparini did wasn't meant specifically as an interpretation of a×b at all, but the generic infinitary natural sum, where you can't assume that all the summands are the same. It's possible that for the specific case of a×b, one might be able to find a reformulation of his characterization that does make this obvious. Of course, proving that this reformulation is the same might be far from easy! Who knows.

So, that's the state of things. Guess I've got quite a bit of work to do... (Well, I guess that's true regardless. In fact I might want to put off fixing this for now to get more writing up of integer complexity done.)

-Harry
sniffnoy: (SMPTE)
EDIT Oct 12: Corrected a mistake in question 0, and also expanded it slightly. Also pretty sure I've proved question 1 and therefore 2 and 3; see note below.

So, OK, I know how to compute big multichoose now. But I was going through some old notes of mine and I found a few questions about it I still hadn't answered. Two of them, I suppose, could potentially be solved based on my computation rule, but that seems like it would be quite ugly. I still don't have a resolution to these questions; I'm going to state them here.

Notation: I'll write ((α multichoose β)) for my "big multichoose" operation. Given posets A and B, I'll write Rev(A,B) for the set of order-reversing maps from A to B, considered as a poset. Now, all orders considered here will be WPOs; in general, given WPOs A and B, the order Rev(A,B) is not necessarily a WPO, but I'll only consider cases where it is. In particular, for any ordinal α and a WPO B, Rev(α,B) is a WPO. Remember, ((α multichoose β)) is by definition o(Rev(β,α)).

So suppose A, B, and Rev(A,B) are WPOs; then it's easy to see that o(Rev(A,B))≥o(Rev(o(A),B)). Adding more relations to A just removes points from Rev(A,B), so o(Rev(A,B)) goes down.

However, it's less clear what happens if we instead take o(Rev(A,o(B))) instead of o(Rev(o(A),B)). Adding more relations to B adds points to Rev(A,B), which would appear to make o(Rev(A,B)) go up; however, it also adds relations to Rev(A,B), which would appear to make o(Rev(A,B)) go down.

So naively, it could go either up or down. However, I have never once seen it go down! I've only see it go up or stay the same.

So, question 0: If A, B, Rev(A,B), and Rev(A,o(B)) are all WPOs, does one have o(Rev(A,B))≤o(Rev(A,o(B))? (And if A, B, and Rev(A,o(B)) are all WPOs, does this imply that Rev(A,B) is too?)

And in case that's false, the more specific question 1: If α is an ordinal and B is a WPO, does one have o(Rev(α,B))≤o(Rev(α,o(B)))?

Note that if this is true, it cannot be simply because o(B) is an extension of B! One can find other extensions that make this false. For instance, suppose α=2, and B is the disjoint union of ω and 1; one may extent B to an order of type ω, but this will cause o(Rev(α,B)) to go down.

So far, I've been able to prove this in the case when α is finite, by making use of my computation rule. (I think attempting to prove this without making use of my computation rule will be impractical.)

The above two questions don't purely deal with big multichoose and thus can't be settled by my computation rules. The next two questions potentially could.

With Rev, one has the obvious isomorphisms Rev(A⨿B,C)=Rev(A,C)×Rev(B,C), Rev(A,B×C)=Rev(A,B)×Rev(A,C), and Rev(A,Rev(B,C))=Rev(A×B,C).

If one combines the first of these isomorphisms with the inequality o(Rev(A,B))≥o(Rev(o(A),B)) mentioned above, one obtains the inequality

((α multichoose β⊕γ)) ≤ ((α multichoose β)) ⊗ ((α multichoose γ)).

However, attempting to turn the other two isomorphisms into inequalities would require the use of the inequality in question 1. So this gives rise to questions 2 and 3 -- keep in mind that a positive answer to question 1 (or, y'know, question 0) would settle both of these in the affirmative:

Question 2: Is ((α⊗β multichoose γ)) ≥ ((α multichoose γ)) ⊗ ((β multichoose γ))?

Question 3: Is ((α multichoose β⊗γ)) ≤ (( ((α multichoose β)) multichoose γ))?

Because I can currently prove question 1 in the case where α is finite, I can prove both of these in the case where γ is finite.

EDIT Oct 12: I'm pretty sure I have now proven question 1 in general, therby proving questions 2 and 3. Unfortunately the proof is not simple. As for question 0... well, it's pretty obviously true when A and B are both finite. Other than that I haven't gotten very far, but I can't find a counterexample. If it is indeed false, perhaps it's worth asking with the assumptions that A and B are both BPOs instead of merely WPOs. (We can call that question 1/2.)

Both these could be potentially answered by purely computational means, though it would be somewhat unsatisfying. Right now, though, if this is true, I have not done even that. Although I can at least verify that they're true when the inputs are powers of ω; that case, at least, is straightforward computationally...

-Harry
sniffnoy: (Kirby)
So I have a number of neat things to report about ordinals! In order from least to most exciting:

#1: I can now compute big multichoose, in general

At least, I'm pretty sure I can prove it. More on this in a moment.

(Unfortunately, this means I have no "easy math" I can work on right now -- I need to get back to the hard math, y'know.)

Hm -- I just looked and saw I never defined "big multichoose" here. In short: If α and β are ordinals, we can consider the poset of all weakly decreasing functiosn from β to α; this is a WPO, so we can take the largest ordinal extending it. This is what I mean by "α multichoose β", which I will denote here as ((α|β)) because what else am I going to do.

Point is, I've been puzzling over it for a while, working out special cases, because for obvious reasons this is quite a bit harder to compute than left and right multichoose from earlier.

#2: There really, really, is no natural exponentiation

In appendix B of my ordinal arithmetic paper, I showed that there's no operation satisfying several desiderata that we'd expect of a "natural exponentiation". However, one of the desiderata was a bit less, uh, to be desired than the others. But I've now managed to eliminate the dependence on that hypothesis! Best of all, the new proof is only a slight modification of the existing one. The super short version is, instead of defining f(n) = deg e(n,ω), you define f(n) to be the "leading coefficient" of deg e(n,ω).

I'll update the paper shortly -- I'll also need to notify the journal I submitted it to about the update...

#3: Big multichoose is related to the surreal exponential!

Don't ask me why -- I don't actually understand the surreal exponential at all. But it totally is! The thing is, this doesn't actually depend on any of the new stuff in #1; what's related to the surreal exponential is the rule for computing ((ω|α)), or rather ((ω|α))0. (I'm using the subscript 0 to mean that I'm restricting to functions which are eventually 0.) It turns out for α a limit ordinal,

((ω|α))0 = exp(α)

where exp is the surreal exponential.

Again, I don't have any idea why this is so, I just noticed that the rules for computing them are the same. I didn't notice it before because I hadn't written the rule for computing the former in a way that made it obvious.

So let me go into more detail about #1 now -- the final piece of the puzzle was figuring out how to compute ((ωαβ))0 for α,β>0. What I eventually figured out was that this is equal to ωω^G(α,β) for a certain function G. Specifically, G(α,β) is equal to α⊕β if either α or β is of the form εγ+k for some ordinal γ and some finite k, or if both are infinite. Otherwise -- if one is finite and the other is not of the form εγ+k -- then instead you get (α⊕β)-1, which necessarily makes sense since one of them is finite and nonzero.

Now, Harry Gonshor, in his book "An Introduction to the Theory of Surreal Numbers" -- where he defined the surreal exponential in the first place -- showed that there's a function g such that for a surreal number α>0, exp(ωα)=ωω^g(α), and showed how to compute g. Of course, we only care about the case where α is an ordinal, not just any surreal. And in that case, g(α) is equal to α+1 if α is of the form εγ+k, and is equal to α otherwise.

See the similarity? G(1,β) is exactly equal to g(β). And from this follows the equation above.

Now as I said this only requires knowing how to compute G(1,β), i.e., how to compute ((ω|β))0, which I already knew how to do. But I didn't notice the similarity until I wrote it in this form depending on G. And I wouldn't have written it that way if I weren't trying to determine ((α|β)) more generally. So there is that bit of relation there. I determined the form of G, and then noticed that G(1,β) reminded me of the rule for g(β); and I ran to the library to look it up, and indeed it was the same.

So yay! That's finally solved. Now back to harder math, I guess...

-Harry
sniffnoy: (SMPTE)
In their paper "Well-partial orderings and hierarchies", D. H. J. De Jongh and Rohit Parikh showed that given any WPO X, we can define an ordinal o(X), which is the largest order type of any well-order extending X. (As in, yes, the maximum is achieved.) Then they proved some things about how to compute o(X) and computed some specific cases. In particular, o(X⨿Y)=o(X)⊕o(Y) and o(X×Y)=o(X)⊗o(Y), where ⊕ and ⊗ denote natural sum and natural product, respectively.

I'm surprised, however, that nowhere did they note the following rule:

o(X) is equal to the smallest ordinal greater than any o(L), where L is a lower set of X other than X itself.

Equivalently, if we use their notation l(x) to mean o({y: y≱x}), then one can state this as, o(X) is the smallest ordinal greater than any l(x).

I mean, this is kind of the rule you would expect if you know that o(X⨿Y)=o(X)⊕o(Y) and you know the recursion for natural addition. But it's surprising that they don't note this because it's basically just a rephrasing of what they did prove. You could say that it's an unnecessary rephrasing, but I think it's a helpful one, not to mention a clean one.

To be clear, this follows from the following facts that they proved:
1. If o(X) is a limit, it's the sup of all the l(x)
2. l(x) is always less than o(X)
3. o(X) is a successor iff X has a maximal element (call it x); in which case, o(X) is equal to o(X\{x})+1

Number 1 just is the statement above in the case where o(X) is a limit, and the case where it's a successor follows pretty easily from 2 and 3. There's also of course the case where o(X)=0, which is trivial.

So, that's the basic recursion. If you want to go computing o(X) for some WPOs but you don't know how to get an upper bound, it's an available tool (if possibly a hard to apply one).

(Also, unrelatedly, remember I said that as best as I could tell, nobody had ever studied super-Jacobsthal exponentiation before? Well, they don't give a name to it, and they don't really "study" it, but somehow, even though I'd looked at this paper a number of times before, I never noticed that De Jongh and Parikh briefly make use of it. I'd better edit my paper to mention that before I resubmit it!)

-Harry
sniffnoy: (SMPTE)
So!

I just learned from a discussion on Wikipedia that Jacobsthal multiplication was rediscovered in the 1980s by Conway. Possibly because they didn't have Wikipedia back then, he didn't know it was originally due to Jacobsthal. As far as I can tell, this rediscovery resulted in only two papers: One by Harry Gonshor, and one by John Hickman, both of which explored the arithmetic of this multiplication.

I think I'm going to go edit references to these into my own paper on the subject now. The history deserves to be connected up!

-Harry
sniffnoy: (SMPTE)
As discussed last entry... here it is! Again, hopefully I'm not embarrassing myself with this.

If you look at nothing else, look at the two tables. Especially the first table, it's so fancy! :)

-Harry

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